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F5 BIG-IP V9 Local traffic Management EE0-511 Test

EE0-511

QUESTION: 1
Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)

A. serial console access
B. SSH access to the management port
C. SSH access to any of the switch ports
D. HTTP access to the management port
E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F. HTTPS access to the management port
G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports

Answer: A, B, F

QUESTION: 2
Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a BIG-
IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)

A. LDAP
B. OCSP
C. Radius
D. VASCO
E. Active Directory

Answer: A, C, E

QUESTION: 3
Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)

A. The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B. All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C. All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D. The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E. The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than
the 1000, 2400, and 5100.

Answer: D, E
EE0-511

QUESTION: 4
What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP’s management port?

A. 192.168.1.245/16
B. 192.168.1.245/24
C. 192.168.245.245/16
D. 192.168.245.245/24

Answer: B

QUESTION: 5
Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP backup file? (Choose three.)

A. the BIG-IP license
B. the BIG-IP log files
C. the BIG-IP host name
D. the BIG-IP administrative addresses

Answer: A, C, D

QUESTION: 6
Which three statements concerning virtual servers are true? (Choose three.)

A. Virtual servers support session persistence.
B. Virtual servers can decrypt and re-encrypt SSL packets.
C. Virtual servers can decrypt and re-encrypted SSH packets.
D. Virtual servers can translate the virtual server address to a chosen pool member’s address when
processing traffic.

Answer: A, B, D

QUESTION: 7
A load-balancing virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members.
EE0-511

Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning
traffic processed by the virtual server?

A. The client IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the
BIG-IP and server.
B. The server IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the
BIG-IP and server.
C. The TCP ports used in the client to BIG-IP connection are the same as the TCP ports in the
BIG-IP to server connection.
D. The IP addresses used in the client to BIG-IP connection are the same as the IP addresses in
the BIG-IP to server connection.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured
with the same applications. It is known that each client’s interactions vary significantly and can
affect the performance of the servers. If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis,
which load-balancing method is effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively even load across all
servers?

A. Priority
B. Observed
C. Round Robin
D. Ratio Member

Answer: B

QUESTION: 9
Which statement accurately describes the relation between the two load-balancing modes
specified as “member” and “node”?

A. There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B. When the load-balancing choice references “node”, priority group activation is unavailable.
C. Load-balancing options referencing “nodes” are available only when the pool members are
defined for the “any” port.
D. When the load-balancing choice references “node”, the address’ parameters are used to make
EE0-511

the load-balancing choice rather than the member’s parameters.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 10
Which two properties can be assigned to a pool? (Choose two.)

A. ratio values
B. priority values
C. health monitors
D. connection limits
E. load-balancing mode

Answer: C, E

QUESTION: 11
Click the Exhibit button. A virtual server is defined per the charts. The last five client connections
were to members C, D, A, B, B. Given the conditions shown in the exhibit, if a client with IP
address 205.12.45.52 opens a connection to the virtual server, which member will be used for the
connection?
EE0-511

A. 10.10.20.1:80
B. 10.10.20.2:80
C. 10.10.20.3:80
D. 10.10.20.4:80
E. 10.10.20.5:80

Answer: B

QUESTION: 12
Which two can be a part of a pool’s definition? (Choose two.)

A. rule(s)
B. profile(s)
C. monitor(s)
D. persistence type
E. load-balancing method

Answer: C, E

QUESTION: 13
A site would like to ensure that a given server’s IP address is reachable prior to sending it client
traffic. Which monitor template would be the simplest to use?

A. TCP
B. PING
C. ICMP
D. HTTP
E. SNMP

Answer: C

QUESTION: 14
The current status of a given pool member is nknown? Which condition could explain that state?

QUESTION: 8
A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured
with the same applications. It is known that each client’s interactions vary significantly and can
affect the performance of the servers. If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis,
which load-balancing method is effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively even load across all
servers?

A. Priority
B. Observed
C. Round Robin
D. Ratio Member

Answer: B

QUESTION: 9
Which statement accurately describes the relation between the two load-balancing modes
specified as “member” and “node”?

A. There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B. When the load-balancing choice references “node”, priority group activation is unavailable.
C. Load-balancing options referencing “nodes” are available only when the pool members are
defined for the “any” port.
D. When the load-balancing choice references “node”, the address’ parameters are used to make
EE0-511

the load-balancing choice rather than the member’s parameters.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 10
Which two properties can be assigned to a pool? (Choose two.)

A. ratio values
B. priority values
C. health monitors
D. connection limits
E. load-balancing mode

Answer: C, E

QUESTION: 11
Click the Exhibit button. A virtual server is defined per the charts. The last five client connections
were to members C, D, A, B, B. Given the conditions shown in the exhibit, if a client with IP
address 205.12.45.52 opens a connection to the virtual server, which member will be used for the
connection?
EE0-511

A. 10.10.20.1:80
B. 10.10.20.2:80
C. 10.10.20.3:80
D. 10.10.20.4:80
E. 10.10.20.5:80

Answer: B

QUESTION: 12
Which two can be a part of a pool’s definition? (Choose two.)

A. rule(s)
B. profile(s)
C. monitor(s)
D. persistence type
E. load-balancing method

Answer: C, E

QUESTION: 13
A site would like to ensure that a given server’s IP address is reachable prior to sending it client
traffic. Which monitor template would be the simplest to use?

A. TCP
B. PING
C. ICMP
D. HTTP
E. SNMP

Answer: C

QUESTION: 14
The current status of a given pool member is nknown? Which condition could explain that state?

A. The member has no monitor assigned to it.

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Oracle Database 10g New Features for Administrators 1Z0-040 Test

1Z0-040

QUESTION 1:

Which three methods can you use to run an Automatic Database Diagnostic
Monitor (ADDM) analysis over a specific time period? (Choose three.)

A. Enterprise Manager GUI
B. DBMS_TRACE package APIs
C. DBMS_ADVISOR package APIs
D. DBMS_MONITOR package APIs
E. $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin/addmrpt.sql script

Answer: A, C, E

Explanation:
—————–
To make use of ADDM, a PL/SQL interface called DBMS_ADVISOR has been
implemented. This PL/SQL interface may be called through the supplied
$ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin/addmrpt.sql script, called directly, or used in
combination with the Oracle Enterprise Manager application. Besides this
PL/SQL package a number of views (with names starting with the DBA_ADVISOR_
prefix) allow retrieval of the results of any actions performed with the
DBMS_ADVISOR API. The preferred way of accessing ADDM is through the
Enterprise Manager interface, as it shows a complete performance overview
including recommendations on how to solve bottlenecks on a single screen.
When accessing ADDM manually, you should consider using the ADDMRPT.SQL
script provided with your Oracle release, as it hides the complexities
involved in accessing the DBMS_ADVISOR package.

QUESTION 2:

Which background process does Automatic Shared Memory Management use to
coordinate the sizing of memory components?

A. PMON
B. SMON
C. MMNL
D. MMAN
E. MMON

Answer: D
The Automatic Shared Memory Management feature uses a new background process
named Memory Manager (MMAN). MMAN serves as the SGA Memory Broker and
coordinates the sizing of the memory components. The SGA Memory Broker keeps track
of the sizes of the components and pending resize operations
REF.: Metalink Note:268197.1: New Background Processes In 10g
1Z0-040

QUESTION 3:

Which six files are maintained in the Flash Recovery Area? (Choose six.)

A. control file
B. RMAN files
C. password file
D. parameter file
E. flashback logs
F. data file copies
G. core dump files
H. archived log files
I. RMAN recovery scripts
J. control file autobackpus

Answer: A, B, E, F, H, J
The Flash Recovery Area is a unified storage location for all recovery-related files and
activities in an Oracle Database. It includes Control File, Archived Log Files, Flashback
Logs, Control File Autobackups, Data Files, and RMAN files.

QUESTION 4:

Consider the following scenario:
You have a directory, data, under the disk group tdgroup
A. You want to create an
alias for one of the data files and you execute the following command:
ALTER DISKGROUP tdgroupA
ADD ALIAS ‘+tdgroupA/data/datafile.dbf’
FOR ‘+tdgroupA.231.45678’;
Which task would be accomplished by the command?

A. The command drops the file +tdgroupA.231.45678
B. The command physically relocates the file to +tdgroupA/data and renames the file to
datafile.dbf.
C. The command creates a copy of the +tdgroupA.231.45678 file and places it in
+tdgroupA/data after remaining the file to datafile.dbf.
D. The command creates a synonym, datafile.dbf, and places it in +tdgroupA/data and
does not remove the +tdgroupA.231.45678 file.
E. The command creates a file, datafile.dbf, in +tdgroupA/ data and removes the
references for +tdgroupA.231.45678 from the data dictionary views.

Answer: D
Alias names (or just “aliases”) are intended to provide a more user-friendly means of
referring to ASM files, rather than using the system-generated filenames. You can create
an alias for a file when you create it in the database, or you can add an alias to an existing
1Z0-040

file using the ADD ALIAS clause of the ALTER DISKGROUP statement. You can
create an alias in any system-generated or user-created ASM directory. You cannot create
an alias at the root level (+), however. The following statement adds a new alias name for
a system-generated file name:
ALTER DISKGROUP dgroup1
ADD ALIAS ‘+dgroup1/mydir/second.dbf’
FOR ‘+dgroup1/sample/datafile/mytable.342.3’;
REF.: Oracle(r) 10g Administrator Guide, 12-28

QUESTION 5:

Exhibit

One the evening of April 22, you are working on a database created using Oracle
Database 10g. This database operates in the ARCHIVELOG mode. You discover
that you need crucial data that was dropped from the database at 8:00 a.m. No full
backup has been taken after April 15.
What would you do?

A. recover the database until April 10
B. recover the database until April 15
C. recover the database until 22 7:59 a.m.
D. recovery is not possible; manually re-create the object

Answer: C
RMAN simplifies recovery operations using backups taken from earlier database
incarnation so that it is easy as recovering a backup from the same incarnation. The
simplified recovery through RESETLOGS feature is an enhancement to recovery
operations so that previous incarnation backups can be used for recovery of the current
database incarnation. You use this feature when you have performed an incomplete
recovery (or a recovery using a backup control file) and opened the database with the
RESETLOGS option.
To perform incomplete recovery, use the SET UNTIL command to specify the time,
SCN, restore point, or log sequence number at which recovery terminates. Alternatively,
specify the UNTIL clause on the RESTORE and RECOVER commands.
REF.: Oracle(r) Database 10g: New features for Oracle 8i, 18-21 and Oracle(r) 10g Backup and Recovery
Basics, 3-4

QUESTION 6:
1Z0-040

You are unable to move the Unified Job Scheduler occupant from the SYSAUX
tablespace to the USERS tablespace. What could be the reason?

A. None of the SYSAUX occupants can be relocated.
B. The USERS tablespace is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).
C. The united Job Scheduler occupant cannot be relocated.
D. The SYSAUX occupants can be relocated to the SYSTEM tablespace only.

Answer: C
A – Not true. Same off the occupants can be move
B – Not true. The USERS occupant , isn’t , by default a BFT tablespace, and even tought,
you should be able to move anything to a BFT tablespace. The point it’s about to move,
SYSAUX occupant.
C – True answer, as you con check , by the following query :
SELECT occupant_name, move_procedure,
FROM v$sysaux_occupants;
OCCUPANT_NAME MOVE_PROCEDURE
————– ———————————
AO DBMS_AW.MOVE_AWMETA
EM emd_maintenance.move_em_tblspc
JOB_SCHEDULER *** MOVE PROCEDURE NOT APPLICABLE **
LOGMNR SYS.DBMS_LOGMNR_D.SET_TABLESPACE
LOGSTDBY SYS.DBMS_LOGSTDBY.SET_TABLESPACE
ODM MOVE_ODM
ORDIM *** MOVE PROCEDURE NOT APPLICABLE ***
ORDIM/PLUGINS *** MOVE PROCEDURE NOT APPLICABLE ***
ORDIM/SQLMM *** MOVE PROCEDURE NOT APPLICABLE ***
SDO MDSYS.MOVE_SDO
STATSPACK Use export/import (see export parameter file spuexp.par)
STREAMS
TEXT DRI_MOVE_CTXSYS
ULTRASEARCH MOVE_WK
WM DBMS_WM.move_proc
D – Not true. Can move SYSAUX occupants, whem is possible, to any tablespace that
you want.
REF.: Metalink Note: 243246.1: 10G : SYSAUX Tablespace

QUESTION 7:

You enabled block change tracking for faster incremental backups in your
database.
Which background process writes to the change tracking file?

A. RBAL
B. CKPT
C. SMON
1Z0-040

D. PMON
E. MMON
F. CTWR
G. DBWR

Answer: F
CTWR : This is a new process Change Tracking Writer (CTWR) which works with the
new block changed tracking features in 10g for fast RMAN incremental backups.
REF.: Metalink Note:268197.1: New Background Processes In 10g

QUESTION 8:

You want to enforce a company’s business policy on several objects by using a single
policy function.
Which two types of policies can be assigned to the policy_type argument in the
dbms_rls.add_policy procedure to achieve the above objective? (Choose two.)

A. DBMS_RLS.STATIC
B. DBMS_RLS.DYNAMIC
C. DBMS_RLS.SHARED_STATIC
D. DBMS_RLS.CONTEXT_SENSITIVE
E. DBMS_RLS.SHARED_CONTEXT_SENSITIVE

Answer: C, E
DBMS_RLS. SHARED_STATIC
The policy function executes once, Once, then the predicate is cached in the SGA, and
it’s Shared Across Multiple Objects, like Hosting environments, such as data warehouses
where the same predicate must be applied to multiple database objects
DBMS_RLS. SHARED_CONTEXT_SENSITIVE
The policy function executes f irst time and the object is reference in a database session
Predicates are cached in the private session memory UGA so policy functions can be
shared among objects.
REF.: Oracle(r) Database Security Guide 10g Release 2 (10.2) – p 15-30

QUESTION 9:

The Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) analysis runs every 60
minutes on your database. Your database if facing a series of interrelated problems
over a period of two hours. You need to ensure that the ADDM analysis is run over
a time span of two hours in future.
What would you do?

A. Create two custom ADDM tasks.
B. Modify the AWR snapshot time interval to two hours.
C. Create a new scheduler window for a time period of two hours.
D. Modify the time interval by using the DBMS_JOB.INTERVAL procedure.

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IBM Cognos 8 BI Metadata Model Developer COG-132 Test

Question: 1
A recursive relationship exists between SALES_STAFF_CODE and MANAGER_CODE in the
SALES_STAFF . This is provided in a model to report
authors. Using this alone, report authors cannot create a report that includes
management staff and the sales staff that report to them. How can the existing recursive
relationship in the model be modified to provide this ability to report authors?

A. Import a that does not contain a recursive relationship.
B. Create a star schema grouping that contains the SALES_STAFF
and a shortcut to the SALES_STAFF .
C. Create a model with the appropriate relationship to the existing SALES_STAFF
and make both available to report authors.
D. Create a shortcut to the SALES_STAFF , and report authors will use
it instead of the underlying to create the required report.

Answer: C

Question: 2
Which of the following are proven practices for organizing the objects in a project?

A. When importing metadata from more than one , include all imported objects in the
root namespace.
B. When importing metadata from more than one , create a separate folder for the
imported objects from each .
C. When importing metadata from more than one , create a separate namespace for
the imported objects from each .
D. When importing metadata from more than one , do not override the relationships
defined between the s at the time of import.

Answer: C

Question: 3
In Cognos 8, what are the two distinct model types authors can work with?

A. OLAP and DMR
B. Dimensional and DMR
C. Relational and SAP BW
D. Relational and Dimensional

Answer: D

Question: 4
When a modeler imports metadata into Framework Manager, the Usage property for a non-
indexed, numeric query item is set to which of the following?

A. Fact
B. Attribute
C. Identifier
D. Unknown

Answer: A

Question: 5
When importing metadata into Framework Manager from a relational database, which of the
following can be controlled by the modeler performing the import?
Page 1 of 15
Question: 3
In Cognos 8, what are the two distinct model types authors can work with?

A. OLAP and DMR
B. Dimensional and DMR
C. Relational and SAP BW
D. Relational and Dimensional

Answer: D

Question: 4
When a modeler imports metadata into Framework Manager, the Usage property for a non-
indexed, numeric query item is set to which of the following?

A. Fact
B. Attribute
C. Identifier
D. Unknown

Answer: A

Question: 5
When importing metadata into Framework Manager from a relational database, which of the
following can be controlled by the modeler performing the import?
Page 1 of 15

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Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator EC0-349 Test

EC0-349

QUESTION 1:

When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a
whois lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what
U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?

A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)

Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer?

A. A sheepdip coordinates several honeypots
B. A sheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot
C. A sheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking.
D. A sheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack

Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from
the time you find it until the case is closed or goes to court?

A. rules of evidence
B. law of probability
C. chain of custody
D. policy of separation

Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical
system file?

A. 128
B. 64
C. 32
D. 16
EC0-349

Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

To calculate the number of bytes on a disk, the formula is: CHS**

A. number of circles x number of halves x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector
B. number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector
C. number of cells x number of heads x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector
D. number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector

Answer:

QUESTION 6:

You are using DriveSpy, a forensic tool and want to copy 150 sectors where the starting sector is
1709 on the primary hard drive. Which of the following formats correctly specifies these sectors?

A. 0:1000, 150
B. 0:1709, 150
C. 1:1709, 150
D. 0:1709-1858

Answer: B

QUESTION 7:

A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below
is an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the
attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the
excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting,
basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.)
03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111
TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF
***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32
TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84
Len: 64
01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 …………….
00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 …………….
00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 …………….
00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ……..
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
EC0-349

03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104
Len: 1084
47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c…………
00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ……………
3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C 68 6F 73 :.^…..localhost
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
+
03/15-20:21:36.539731 211.185.125.124:4450 -> 172.16.1.108:39168
TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:31660 IpLen:20 DgmLen:71 DF
***AP*** Seq: 0x9C6D2BFF Ack: 0x59606333 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32
TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23679878 2880015
63 64 20 2F 3B 20 75 6E 61 6D 65 20 2D 61 3B 20 cd /; uname -a;
69 64 3B id;

A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111
B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer Overflow
C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773
D. The attacker has installed a backdoor

Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on:

A. OS/2
B. BSD Unix
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Windows

Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first?

A. engage in damage control
B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect
C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury
D. qualify you as an expert witness

Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

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PRO: Designing and Optimizing Data Access by Using Microsoft SQL Server 2005 70-442 Test

070-442

Topic 1, National Retailers, Scenario
COMPANY OVERVIEW
Background
National Retailers operates as a retailer that specializes in vintage dolls and handmade
porcelain dolls as well as action figures. The National Retailers Company has four
factories: one each in Chicago, Los Angeles, Miami, and Dallas. Chicago hosts the
National Retailers head quarters. Apart from the four factories, National Retailers has
sales representatives that works in 50 cities across the United States. These sales
representatives telecommute and usually place orders from customers with the closest
factory. Salespeople are paid on commission. Commission checks are generated monthly
and include commission on all orders paid for in that month.
Products and Services on offer
National Retailers operates as a retailer that specializes in vintage dolls, handmade
porcelain dolls, and action figures. National Retailers sells mostly to department stores,
discount stores, and specialty stores. In future National Retailers hope to expand business
and thus wants to start selling their exclusive doll line on their Web site.
Future Plans
Since its inception, National Retailers has grown rapidly from humble beginnings with a
single factory in Chicago to a multi-location company that currently has four factories
supplying the whole of the United States. The current database instruction is unable to
handle the National Retailers requirements. As a result product shipments have been
delayed due to stocking levels for popular products not meeting the demand. In the mean
time the less popular doll ranges have been stored for too long and some has even been
shipped to customers by mistake.
To this end National Retailers wants to upgrade its current system to Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. They also want to centralize operations to accommodate more effective
management of the factories as well as the order fulfillment process.
The National Retailers management wants to expand business by selling their exclusive
doll line on the company Web site.
EXISTING ENVIRONMENT
Existing Application and Supporting Environment
The National Retailers network consists or two Active Directory forests, namely
Corporate and Manufacturing respectively. Each of the factories represents its own
domain. Currently all domain controllers are running Microsoft Windows 2000 Server.
There are five servers that are used as database servers. All database servers are running
Microsoft SQL Server 2000. NRCH-DB02 enjoys membership of the corporate domain.
All other database servers belong to the Manufacturing domain. The following table
illustrates the current Database Servers and their specifications:
070-442

The Chicago head quarters have two database administrators and three network
administrators. These employees vacillate between the head quarters and the factories
when required.
At present the inventory application allows users to enter criteria. It also builds
Transact-SQL queries dynamically by concatenating the data entered by users.
At present the order management application calls stored procedures that accept a
Transact-SQL string as the only parameter.
Connectivity between office and factories
Only the Chicago office is connected to the Internet. The National Retailers factories are
not currently connected to the Internet. A server named ISA-Chicago, in the Chicago
office is configured with Internet Security and Acceleration Service (ISA). This ISA
server separates the internal network from the Internet.
The factories are making use of dedicated links to connect to the Chicago office. Each
factory is responsible for the management of its own product tracking. They all make use
of the same custom application for product tracking. The following table illustrates the
current database storage requirements:

Regularly at the end of each month, reports are generated manually and e-mailed to the
Chicago office. Monthly sales and invoice aging information is included in these reports.
The Chicago office handles debt collection. All customers with an outstanding balance
over 60 days are also sent to the Chicago office. The accounting department makes use of
a collections application that imports XML data.
The ProductLine and ProductLineDetails tables contain information about each product
and the parts and components it contains. The ProductLineDetails table contains a
foreign key constraint that references the Parts and Components table. The Parts and
Components table contains a foreign key constraint that references the Suppliers table.
The Orders and OrderDetails tables contain information about each order. The Orders
table has a foreign key constraint that references the Customers table. The OrderDetails
table has a foreign key constraint that references the Products table. The Products table is
referenced by the ProductLine table’s foreign key constraint.
Envisaged Environment
070-442

The National Retailers management wants all database servers to be upgraded to
Microsoft SQL Server 2005.
The future online Sales application will be outsourced. NRCH-DB02 will host a database
to support the e-commerce application. The e-commerce application will make use of
Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) to retrieve product information and submit
orders.
Consolidation of data and revision of the existing applications will be done when
required.
The factories will not be provided with Internet access.
BUSINESS REQUIREMENTS
An annual growth rate of 10% per annum is envisaged for the next five years.
Accessibility of data:
Accounting data
All accounts data, i.e. accounts receivable and payable, must remain immediately
accessible for a period of six months after the end of the fiscal year in which the invoice
was paid. After this period, the same data must be stored for another seven year period.
Usually this data will then hardly be accessed if ever.
Information about customer payments and invoices must be available in the corporate
office within 24 hours of the order shipping.
Manufacturing data
Manufacturing data and product quality data must be accessible for a five year period. In
reality however, data older than 6 months is rarely accessed.
Sales data
National Retailers Sales Representatives must continue to be allowed to place orders via
the nearest factory. In the event of a factory unable to fulfill the order, product inventory
at other factories should be checked and an e-mail order sent to the manager of the
factory that has the product in stock. The manager will then verify inventory and submit
the order locally.
Sales Representatives should also be allowed to check the current commissions due to
them.
National Retailers wants its sales representatives to be able to place orders on a Web site.
In the event of a salesperson attempts to place an order for a customer who has a balance
over 60 days past due, an e-mail should be sent to the salesperson and the customer,
informing them about order rejection.
Product data
Industry regulations require an audit trail for all components and parts that go into a doll
or action figure. The audit trail must be able to use the UPC number on the package to
trace all the components and parts, who supplied the components and parts, and what
date the components and parts were shipped. Components and parts information must be
entered at the time the product line is created and cannot be altered after the quality
inspection. Attempts to modify components and parts information after the inspection
time must be logged.
Only product lines with an intact audit trail can be shipped. If an audit trail is not
available, the product line must be destroyed. The product line application includes a
verification routine that checks a specific product line’s audit trail. The application makes
use of structured error handling to react to a product line that must be destroyed.
070-442

A product line takes two days to complete. All components and parts are collected during
the first half a day. A custom application automatically logs the components and parts
information to the database when components and parts are collected. The Chicago
factory can produce two lines at once. They are synchronized so that the second line is
always started one day after the first line.
TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS
Online customers have to be catered for. Thus credit card numbers must be encrypted in
the database and when sent across the Internet.
Availability:
The tables related to tracking a product line must be available as quickly as possible if
the system fails during the factory’s hours of operation. The accounting and sales tables
do not require quick restoration.
The tables related to tracking a product line must support point-in-time recovery.
In the event of a factory’s database server down during business hours, the inventory and
order management application must be able to use one of the other factories’ database
servers until the local server is recovered.

Topic 1, National Retailers (11 Questions)

QUESTION 1
You work as a contract developer for National Retailers. You are currently working
on the online order application the National Retailers database developer has
informed you that the product parts and components will be stored in a xml data
type column. National Retailers employees are allowed to request product
information regarding a doll or action figure line by clicking a button on the Web
form. The data will only be retrieved if the employee requests details.
You need to design the appropriate data access technologies and must thus choose
the object that you need to use to store the query results for product parts and
component information.
What should you do?

A. Make use of a DataSet object.
B. Make use of an XmlElement object.
C. Make use of an XmlDocument object.
D. Make use of an XmlDocumentFragment object.

Answer: D

Explanation: An XmlDocumentFragment object can store either a well-formed
XML document or a fragment of a document. This would be consistent with the xml
data type which has the ability to store well-formed documents as well as fragments.
1. The National Retailers management wants to expand business by selling their
exclusive doll line on the company Web site
Incorrect Answers:
A: A DataSet object is used when the method returned a relational data set, akin to the
method that is generated from a SELECT statement.
070-442

B: An XmlElement object is used to store the results of a SELECT … FOR XML query,
not the contents of a single value.
C: An XmlDocument object must store well-formed XML Documents. It is thus not
compatible with the xml data type.

QUESTION 2
You work as the database developer for National Retailers. You need to optimize
the indexing strategies and are thus designing the indexes for the Sales.Orders table.
The query in the following exhibit is frequently executed, though it is not the most
commonly executed query.
SELECT Salesrepresentative, SUM(Commission)
FROM Sales.Orders
WHERE Date BETWEEN @ startDate AND @ endDate
GROUP BY Salesrepresentative
ORDER BY Salesrepresentative
You need to use the appropriate statement to create the best index to accommodate
this query.
What should you do?

A. Use the following statement:
CREATE INDEX ix_Commission
ON Sales.Orders(Salesrepresentative, Date, Commission)
B. Use the following statement:
CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX ix_Commission
ON Sales.Orders(Salesrepresentative, Date)
C. Use the following statement:
CREATE INDEX ix_Commission
ON Sales.Orders(Date)
INCLUDE (Salesrepresentative);
D. Use the following statement:
CREATE INDEX ix_Commission
ON Sales.Orders(Date, Salesrepresentative)
INCLUDE (Commission);

Answer: D

Explanation: The Date column is used to select the records and the
Salesrepresentative column is used to group and order the records. This means that
both these columns have to be key columns. The Date column is used in a
BETWEEN comparison, thus it should also be the first in the query. Furthermore,
it has higher selectivity than the Salesrepresentative column.
1. Sales Representatives should also be allowed to check the current commissions due to
them.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The column used for equality or BETWEEN comparisons should be listed first. This
must then be followed by the most selective column, then the rest of the predicate

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Call pilot 4.0 System Administrator 920-158 Test

920-158

QUESTION 1:

An Executive User has inadvertently deleted their Personal Distribution Lists (PDLs)
from the CallPilot system. He has requested that the CallPilot system administrator
restore his PDLs. Which type of archive or backup must have been performed before the
inadvertent deletion in order for the system administrator to be able to restore the
executive’s lost PDLs?

A. A User archive
B. A Prompt archive
C. A full system backup
D. An Application Builder archive

Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

Your CallPilot system handles multimedia calls. The users on the system have reported
problems accessing the system. The Channel Monitor shows several channels as “yellow”
rather than “blue” or “green”. What does the color yellow indicate?

A. idle
B. active
C. no resource
D. disabled, in test, or remote alarm

Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

The administrator wants to determine the number of reports scheduled to run. Where
would the administrator locate this information?

A. Select the Scheduled Reports tab from the CallPilot Reporter Report home page.
B. Select the desired categories and see the scheduled reports from the CallPilot Reporter
Report home page.
C. Select the desired categories to display the reports that are scheduled from the
CallPilot Reporter home page.
D. Select the desired report or alert category and then select the Scheduled or
Unscheduled tab from the CallPilot Reporter System Log page.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

QUESTION 1:

An Executive User has inadvertently deleted their Personal Distribution Lists (PDLs)
from the CallPilot system. He has requested that the CallPilot system administrator
restore his PDLs. Which type of archive or backup must have been performed before the
inadvertent deletion in order for the system administrator to be able to restore the
executive’s lost PDLs?

A. A User archive
B. A Prompt archive
C. A full system backup
D. An Application Builder archive

Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

Your CallPilot system handles multimedia calls. The users on the system have reported
problems accessing the system. The Channel Monitor shows several channels as “yellow”
rather than “blue” or “green”. What does the color yellow indicate?

A. idle
B. active
C. no resource
D. disabled, in test, or remote alarm

Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

The administrator wants to determine the number of reports scheduled to run. Where
would the administrator locate this information?

A. Select the Scheduled Reports tab from the CallPilot Reporter Report home page.
B. Select the desired categories and see the scheduled reports from the CallPilot Reporter
Report home page.
C. Select the desired categories to display the reports that are scheduled from the
CallPilot Reporter home page.
D. Select the desired report or alert category and then select the Scheduled or
Unscheduled tab from the CallPilot Reporter System Log page.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

QUESTION 1:

An Executive User has inadvertently deleted their Personal Distribution Lists (PDLs)
from the CallPilot system. He has requested that the CallPilot system administrator
restore his PDLs. Which type of archive or backup must have been performed before the
inadvertent deletion in order for the system administrator to be able to restore the
executive’s lost PDLs?

A. A User archive
B. A Prompt archive
C. A full system backup
D. An Application Builder archive

Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

Your CallPilot system handles multimedia calls. The users on the system have reported
problems accessing the system. The Channel Monitor shows several channels as “yellow”
rather than “blue” or “green”. What does the color yellow indicate?

A. idle
B. active
C. no resource
D. disabled, in test, or remote alarm

Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

The administrator wants to determine the number of reports scheduled to run. Where
would the administrator locate this information?

A. Select the Scheduled Reports tab from the CallPilot Reporter Report home page.
B. Select the desired categories and see the scheduled reports from the CallPilot Reporter
Report home page.
C. Select the desired categories to display the reports that are scheduled from the
CallPilot Reporter home page.
D. Select the desired report or alert category and then select the Scheduled or
Unscheduled tab from the CallPilot Reporter System Log page.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

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AX 4.0 Human Resource Management MB6-510 Test

Question: 1
You want to assemble a group of employees to address a special business need. However, you
do not want the group to be part of your formal organization. Which of the following types of
organization units should you create?

A – A line unit.
B – A line and matrix unit.
C – A line unit as the parent, and then a matrix unit as the child.
D – A matrix or a project unit.

Answer: D

Question: 2
The company wants to improve the professional support and counseling that it offers to
employees. You have been given the task or creating a matrix organization unit and assigning
people to act as mentors. When you start assigning mentors to the unit, you notice that some of
them are already working in one or more matrix type units. Which or the following rules apply to
matrix organization units?

A – A person can be affiliated to an indefinite number or matrix units.
B – A person can be affiliated to a maximum of five matrix units.
C – A person can be affiliated to a maximum of ten matrix units.
D – A person can be affiliated to an indefinite number of matrix units, provided the person is
already affiliated to a line unit.

Answer: A

Question: 3
You have just moved a person to a new position in another organization unit and must now
decide whether to disable the person’s previous position. When a position is inactive, which of the
following can you do?

A – You can hire people into it as usual.
B – You can move people into it if you assign a future start date.
C – You cannot hire people into the position.
D – You cannot change position information.

Answer: C

Question: 4
The Sales department has enjoyed considerable success recently and now needs additional
support with processing the new orders. To increase the number of sales support personnel, you
decide to merge a Sales Administration Unit with the Sales Unit. How do you merge the two
organization units into one?

A – Drag a unit and drop one on another, and then click Confirm when asked, Merge?
B – Select an organization unit, and select the Move option, and then indicate the unit with which
you want to merge.
C – Move all employees from one unit to the other, and then close the first unit.
D – Right-click on a unit, and then select Merge With.

Answer: B

Question: 5
Until recently, the company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) also performed the duties of a Chief
Operating Officer (COO). However, the company has just hired a new person to take over the
responsibilities of the COO position. You have been given the task of creating the new COO
position and must decide whether to make the position unique. For unique positions, which of the
following is true?

A – Only one position can be unique in a unit.
B – For each position type, only one position can be unique in an organization unit.
C – You cannot hire or move another employee to a unique position that is currently occupied.
D – You can hire more than one employee into a unique position.

Answer: C

Question: 6
Which of the following must be considered before creating a new position?

A – The position group you want to assign the position to.
B – Whether a contract has been attached in Microsoft Dynamics ax document handling.
C – Who the manager is of the unit you are creating the position.
D – That position titles in organization units must be unique.

Answer: A

Question: 7
What is the maximum employment factor that a person employed in four different units in the line
organization can have?

A – 0.25
B – 1.0
C – 4.0
D – A person cannot be employed in different units.

Answer: B

Question: 8
In the Microsoft Dynamics AX Human Resources module, certificates represent which of the
following?

A – They are a way to identity employees that participated in training courses.
B – They are simple documentation of employee skills. Each skill has a corresponding certificate.
C – They prove that you are qualified to participate in a training course.
D – They represent time constrained proof that an employee has the knowledge or ability to
perform one or more specific tasks.

Answer: D

Question: 9
Which of the following are situations in which you would use reason codes?

A – When moving, hiring, or terminating an employee.
B – When assigning benefits.
C – When updating an employee resume.
D – When ending a recruitment project.

Answer: A

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Pro: Design and Develop Web-Based Apps by Using MS.NET 70-547 Test

Microsoft (C#) 70-547

Question: 1
You create Web-based client applications. You are creating a sales management application. The
application will be used to produce sales orders. Sales data, including orders and product
information, is stored in a central Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database. The application uses
Microsoft Windows Integrated security to access data. You test the application component that is
used to retrieve sales order information from the database. The tests are successful. You check
the code back into the source control so that the other testers can utilize the code. The testers
notify you that the application fails to connect to the database in the test environment. You test
the application again and the tests are successful. You need to recreate the bug environment to
investigate and resolve the bug. Which three aspects of the testing environment should you take
into account? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A – Web server processor speed
B – Database security settings
C – Network bandwidth
D – Web server available memory
E – Network credentials used for testing
F – Impersonation settings

Answer: B, E, F

Question: 2
You create Web-based applications. You are creating an application that manages travel
arrangements. Users can book business trips through the application and submit their expense
reports. The current design specifies that 10 components are consumed by the application. You
need to identify the components that require integration testing. Which three components should
you choose? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A – public Web service to retrieve weather information
B – third-party Web service to book flights
C – third-party Web service to book car rentals
D – locally hosted COM+ component to book hotels
E – locally hosted data access component to access a central database
F – the .NET Framework Web server controls

Answer: A, B, C

Question: 3
You create Web-based client applications. You are reviewing a Web application page that
populates a list of all employees of your company. You analyze code and find that the Web
application page does not prevent exceptions from traveling to the browser. You need to ensure
that the Web application page intercepts exceptions and presents an error message to the
browser. What change should you suggest?

A – Add the following code segment to the Web.config file.

B – Add the following code segment to the page.
protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {
Response. Redirect(*error.aspx• );
}
C – Add the following code segment to the Web.config file.

D – Change the load event handler to the following code segment.
protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) {
try{
Load Employees();
}
Catch {
Response. Redirect(• error.aspx• );
}
}

Answer: B

Question: 4
You create Web-based client applications. You are creating a Web site that displays product
information for your company. The application must meet the following requirements:
Support at least 20 concurrent users.

Consume less than 40 percent of the CPU time during peak usage.

Process at least five requests per second during peak usage, which is estimated to be between
20 and 30 users.

A Web test is created to verify the requirements by recording how a regular user would interact
with the site. Then, based on the Web test, a load test is created. The load test simulates 30
users who execute the Web test simultaneously. You need to decide whether the current strategy
is enough to verify the requirements, and recommend changes. What should you recommend?

A – The current strategy is enough to test the requirements.
B – Create a unit test for the processor intensive methods.
C – Create a second load test for 20 simultaneous users.
D – Delete the load test and use the Web test with system monitor.

Answer: A

Question: 5
You create Web-based applications. You are creating an Internet banking application. You write
the following lines of code to represent a method in your application. (Line numbers are included
for reference only.)

01 public void Transfer(decimal amount, BankAccount account)
02 {
03 if (!(amount> 0))
04 throw new Exception(• lnvalid deposit amount!• );
05 else
06 {
07 this.Withdraw(amount);
06 account.Deposit(amount);
09 }
10 }

You use the Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 test feature to automatically generate the following unit
test. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

01 [TestMethod()]
02 public void TransferTest()
03 {
05 BankAccount target = new BankAccount();
06 BankAccount transferTo = new BankAccount();
07 target.Deposit(500);
06 target.Transfer(100,transferTo);
09 Assert.lnconclusive(• A method that does not return a value cannot be verified.• );
10 }

You need to change the test method to return a conclusive result. Which line of code should
replace the code on line 09 of the unit test?

A – Assert.AreEqual (400M, target.Balance);
B – Assert.lsTrue (target.Balance != 400M);
C – Debug.Assert (target.Balance == 400M,passed);
D – Debug.Assert (target.Balance 400M,failed);

Answer: A

Question: 6
You create Web-based client applications. You create a Web site that will be used to simulate
different types of loans. You are writing a method to calculate the payment on a simple loan. You
write the following lines of code for the method. (Comments are included for reference only.)

public static decimal Payment(decimal loanAmount, int period, decimal rate){
if (l(loanAmount> 0)II!(period> 1)II!(rate > 0)) { //Line A
throw new Exception(• lnvalid inputl• ); // Line B
}else {
return 0M; // Line C: return a calculated payment
}
}
public static decimal CheckBalance(ulong accountlD) {
return 0M; // Line D: return calculated balance
}
You write the following code for the unit test.
[TestMethod()]
public void PaymentTest() {
decimal payment = Loan.Payment(100000,360,10); //Line E
Assert.AreEqual(payment, 877.57M); // Line F

You enable coverage testing for this unit test. You need to identify the coverage of your test.
Which lines are covered by the test?

A – Lines commented A, B, and C
B – Lines commented A and C
C – Lines commented A, B, C, D, E, and F
D – Lines commented A, B, C, E, and F

Answer: B

Question: 7
You create Web-based client applications. You are creating an online reporting application that
must generate inventory restocking reports within 34 seconds. In the development environment,
during a unit test, generation of the month-end report took 42 seconds. You need to recommend
what action must be taken to validate the test results. What should you recommend?

A – Update the performance requirements, and do performance testing in the production
environment.
B – Deploy a debug build of the code, and do performance testing in the staging environment.
C – Update the code to meet the requirements, and do unit testing in the staging environment.
D – Deploy a release build of the code, and do performance testing in the staging environment.

Answer: D

Question: 8
You create Web-based client applications. You create an application that is used as a portal. The
portal uses a set of custom controls that expose different functionalities.

The set of custom controls includes one control each for the following three tasks:

Track sales
Track inventory
Permit access to the corporate e-mail of the company

The portal must permit users to select the controls that they need to display on the basis of a
predefined list.

The design team proposes the following steps to meet the requirement:
Create the custom controls as Web parts.
Create a Web part zone page that has two Web part controls and a catalog part control.
Add the sales Web part control to the Web part zone.
You need to evaluate whether the solution meets the requirements. What should you conclude?

A – The requirements are met. There is no need to change the application design.
B – The requirements are not met. An editor part zone is necessary.
C – The requirements are not met. The Web part controls must be added to the catalog part.
D – The requirements are not met. The Web part controls must be added to the Web part page.

Answer: C

Question: 9
You create Web-based client applications. You create an application that will be used by
customers to browse the product catalog of an Internet-based store and buy products.
The application must meet the following requirements:

Permit registered customers of the store to change display settings and personal information.
Store the updated information and associate the information with the logged-on customer.
You need to choose appropriate technologies to meet these requirements. Which two
technologies should you choose? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A – SSL
B – Editor parts
C – Catalog parts
D – User profiles
E – Themes

Answer: D, E

Question: 10
You create Web-based client applications. You are creating a Web control that includes data
entry fields. The Web control also includes data validation code. The data validation code verifies
whether the user has entered a valid date and a valid postal code in a text box. You are writing
the code within the Web control to handle the invalid data. The Web control must work on as
many browsers as possible. You need to design an appropriate feedback technique. What should
you do?

A – Throw an exception, and include details aboutthe invalid data in the Message property.
B – Throw an exception, and include details about the invalid data in the InnerException property.
C – Use a pop-up error message to inform the user that the data is not valid.
D – Display text to indicate why the data is not valid.

Answer: D

Question: 11
You create Web-based client applications. You are creating a content management system
(CMS). You intend to sell CMS to your customers. It is important that customers customize the
appearance and behavior of the CMS installation because the system will be used for external
Web sites. However, your customers are not programmers. The customers will not be able to
modify complicated source code to customize the appearance and behavior or their Web sites.
You need to create the system in such away that customers can modify the appearance and
behavior of their Web sites by editing the minimum number of files, ideally one or two. Which
strategy should you use?

A – By using ASP.NET Server Controls and class inheritance, create a template system that
permits controls to inherit the appearance and behavior or their inherited class. Permit users
to modify the root classes or the hierarchy to rearrange completely the appearance and
behavior or their Web sites.
B – Create a set of ASP.NET master pages and associate every page in your system by using a
specific master page. Permit users to modify these master pages to rearrange completely the
appearance and behavior of their Web sites.
C – Configure your system to output completely compliant XHTML and use cascading style
sheets (CSS) to create the visual layout of the pages. Permit users to modify the CSS files to
rearrange completely the appearance and behavior of their Web sites.
D – Create the root pages by using ASP.NET #include directives to pull in the relevant sub-
pages. Permit users to modify these root pages as desired to rearrange completely the
appearance and behavior of their Web sites.

Answer: B

Question: 12
You create Web-based client applications. You are creating an ASP.NET intranet site. The site
permits individual departments to post content without involving the Central Information
Technology resources. The site also permits Central Information Technology to maintain control
over the intranet as a whole. Each department wants complete control over the appearance and
behavior of their departmental content. However, Information Technology directives require every

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HDI Qualified Customer Support Specialist QQ0-400 Test

QQ0-400

QUESTION 1
Which statement best describes a problem?

A. A problem is a group of incidents that recur occasionally.
B. A problem is a group of incidents with different symptoms.
C. A problem is a significant incident with an unknown cause.
D. A problem is a single incident with a known solution.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is most likely to be a barrier to communication?

A. The customer ability to use self-help systems.
B. The customer previous experience with the Support Centre.
C. The customer position in the business.
D. The level of support provided by the Support Centre.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the most important reason for using customer satisfaction surveys?

A. Customer satisfaction surveys allow customers to say what they really think without
offending Support Centre staff.
B. Customer satisfaction surveys help to determine if customer service expectations are
being met.
C. Customer satisfaction surveys provide an accurate set of management reports on SLA
performance.
D. Customer satisfaction surveys provide information that can be used to assess blame
for problems.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Certkiller .com calls with a problem you know they could solve using the Support Centre
web site. What is a best practice for encouraging the customer to try self-help?

A. Ask if they have tried the website and give them the answer.
B. Respectfully talk them through the self-help process.
C. Send them an e-mail with a link to the web site.
D. Tell them that the answer is on the web site and give them the URL.

Answer: B
QQ0-400

QUESTION 5
What is the most important reason why Support Centres monitor incidents?

A. Incident monitoring is done by all good Support Centres.
B. Incident monitoring is an ITIL best practice.
C. Incident monitoring is the Support Centre primary function.
D. Incident monitoring results in improved quality of services.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When is it most appropriate to escalate an incident to a manager?

A. Escalate an incident if the customer begins to complain.
B. Escalate an incident the customer is emotional.
C. Escalate an incident if the customer requests to speak to a manager.
D. Escalate an incident if the Support Centre is short of staff.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is a best practice for negotiating with Certkiller .com?

A. Look at the problem from the customer perspective.
B. Only provide a service that is included in the SLA.
C. Strictly follow the Support Centre policies.
D. Transfer the customer to your supervisor if they disagree with you.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which is a best practice for dealing with stress?

A. Drink more water.
B. Ignore the stress.
C. Take short naps when you can.
D. Talk to someone about your concerns.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statement best describes a team?

A. A team is a forum for creativity and self expression.
B. A team is a group of people working to accomplish the same goals.
C. A team is a group of strong personalities.

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PRO: Optimizing and Maintaining a Database Administration Solution by Using Microsoft 2005 70-444 Test

070-444

QUESTION 1:

You work as the database administrator at testkingworld .net. The testkingworld .net
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testkingworld .net. All
servers on the testkingworld .net network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional.
The testkingworld .net network contains a 2005 database server named
testkingworld -DB01. testkingworld -DB01 hosts a database named CK_Sales that stores
sales data for the company. testkingworld -DB01 also hosts two financial applications.
You need to optimize the performance of testkingworld -DB01 and increase the
performance of the two financial applications. You need to modify the
configuration to accomplish this goal.
What should you do?

A. Configure the max worker threads server option.
B. Configure the min memory per query server option.
C. Configure the max server memory server option.
D. Configure the min server memory server option.

Answer: C

Explanation: The max server memory option is used to specify the maximum
amount of system memory that 2005 is allowed to consume. Setting this
option will ensure that the 2005 does not consume all the available
memory and can be used to ensure that sufficient memory is remains available for
the other applications to run.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The max worker threads option is used to specify the number of processor threads that
are used to supported users connected to . This does not assist in optimizing
performance for other applications.
B:
The min memory per query option is used to specify the minimum amount of memory
that is allocated to the execution of a query. This is useful if there are several concurrent
queries but it does not assist in optimizing performance for other applications.
D: The min server memory option is used to ensure that 2005 does not
release memory below the min server memory value once it is reached. This ensures that
2005 always has sufficient memory but it will not ensure that the other
applications have sufficient memory.
Reference:
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min server memory option
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min memory per query option
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max worker threads option
070-444

QUESTION 2:

You work as the database administrator at testkingworld .net. The testkingworld .net
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testkingworld .net. All
servers on the testkingworld .net network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional.
The testkingworld .net network contains a 2005 database server named
testkingworld -DB01. testkingworld -DB01 hosts a database named CK_Sales that stores
sales data for the company. testkingworld -DB01 also hosts two financial applications.
Several testkingworld .net users in the Sales department complain that queries against
the CK_Sales database perform very poorly at times. You use System Monitor to
monitor the performance of by using testkingworld -DB01 and discover that SQL
Server 2005 does not have sufficient memory to run efficiently. You need to ensure
that 2005 always has sufficient memory to run efficiently.
What should you do?

A. Decrease the min memory per query server option.
B. Increase the min server memory server option.
C. Increase the max worker threads server option.
D. Decrease the max server memory server option.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The min server memory option is used to ensure that 2005 does not
release memory below the min server memory value once it is reached. This ensures
that 2005 always has sufficient memory. By default, min server memory
is set to 0.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The min memory per query option is used to specify the minimum amount of memory
that is allocated to the execution of a query. This is useful if there are several concurrent
queries. Decreasing this option will increase the possibility that the 2005 will
perform poorly.
C: The max worker threads option is used to specify the number of processor threads that
are used to supported users connected to . Increasing this option will not
address the memory problem.
D: The max server memory option is used to specify the maximum amount of system
memory that 2005 is allowed to consume. Decreasing this option will
increase the possibility that the 2005 will perform poorly.
Reference:
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min server memory option
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min memory per query option
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max worker threads option
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option
070-444

QUESTION 3:

You work as the database administrator at testkingworld .net. The testkingworld .net
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testkingworld .net. All
servers on the testkingworld .net network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. The testkingworld .net network contains a
2005 database server named testkingworld -DB01. testkingworld -DB01
hosts a database named CK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. The tables
in the CK_Sales database are shown in the following database diagram.

The recent increase in database usage at the company has resulted in several
testkingworld .net users complaining of timeouts when they try to retrieve sales orders
from the CK_Sales database. You need to determine whether partitioning the
Orders table would improve database performance.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
TWO.)

A. Run Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
B. Create a performance log file to monitor :Buffer Manager:Page reads/sec.
C. Run Profiler to replay the trace file and the log file.
D. Use the Profiler Tuning template to create a trace file.
E. Create a performance log file to monitor Logical Disk: Disk Read Bytes/sec

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
You can use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to determine whether indexing
and partitioning of a table would improve database performance. The Database
Engine Tuning Advisor analyzes a workload file that you can create by running
Profiler and creating a trace based on the Profiler Tuning
template.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The :Buffer Manager:Page reads/sec counter is used to monitor the read
activity on an instance of . It does not help you determine whether
partitioning a table will improve database performance.
C: You can use the Profiler to analyze a trace file and a log file to determine
070-444

which queries are causing excessive resource utilization. However, this information does
not help you determine whether partitioning a table will improve database performance.
E: The Logical Disk: Disk Read Bytes/sec counter is used to monitor the read activity on
a logical disk. It does not help you determine whether partitioning a table will improve
database performance.
Reference:
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning
Advisor [ ]
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Profiler
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: performance counters [SQL
Server]
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option

QUESTION 4:

You work as the database administrator at testkingworld .net. The testkingworld .net
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testkingworld .net. All
servers on the testkingworld .net network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional.
The testkingworld .net network contains a 2005 database server named
testkingworld -DB01. testkingworld -DB01 hosts a database named CK_Sales that stores
sales data for the company. The tables in the CK_Sales database are shown in the
following database diagram.

Several testkingworld .net users start complaining of slow response time when they run
queries against the CK_Sales database. You run the sys.dm_os_schedulers view on
testkingworld -DB01 and discover that the runnable_tasks_count is consistently at or
above ten. You run System Monitor on testkingworld -DB01 and receive the output as
shown in the exhibit.
070-444

You need to improve database performance.
What should you do?

A. Increase the Random Access Memory (RAM).
B. Add an additional processor.
C. Upgrade the disk subsystem.
D. Use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to suggest new indexes.

Answer: B

Explanation: The Processor:% Processor Time counter in the exhibit indicates that
the processor is often running at over 80%. This indicates that the processor is
causing a bottleneck. Adding an additional processor to the system will improve
overall system performance.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Memory:Avg. Disk Queue Length counter in the exhibit is low. This indicates
that the RAM is not causing a bottleneck. Therefore, adding additional RAM to the
system will not improve overall system performance.
C: The PhysicalDisk:Pages/sec counter in the exhibit is low. This indicates that the disk
subsystem is not causing a bottleneck. Therefore, upgrading the disk subsystem will not
improve overall system performance.
D: The Processor:% Processor Time counter in the exhibit indicates that the processor is
often running at over 80%. This indicates that the processor is causing a bottleneck.
Indexing the tables will not reduce the load on the processor and will not improve overall
system performance.
Reference:
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: CPU [ ], monitoring
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning
Advisor [ ]

QUESTION 5:
070-444

You work as the database administrator at testkingworld .net. The testkingworld .net
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testkingworld .net. All
servers on the testkingworld .net network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. You use a client computer named
testkingworld -WS444.
The testkingworld .net network contains a 2005 database server named
testkingworld -DB01. testkingworld -DB01 hosts a database named CK_Products. The
recent increase in database usage at the company has resulted in several
testkingworld .net users complaining of poor query performance and query timeouts try
to retrieve data from the CK_Products database. You need to determine the cause
of the poor performance. You need to minimize the effect of your monitoring
strategy on system performance.
What should you do?

A. Run the Profiler from testkingworld -WS444 and create a trace that
monitors testkingworld -DB01. Save the trace file to a table.
B. Run the Performance tool on testkingworld -DB01 to create a log that monitors
testkingworld -DB01. Save the log file to a folder on testkingworld -DB01.
C. Run the Profiler on testkingworld -DB01 and create a trace that monitors
testkingworld -DB01. Save the trace file to a table.
D. Run the Performance tool on testkingworld -WS444 to create a log that monitors
testkingworld -DB01. Save the log file to a folder on testkingworld -WS444.

Answer: D

Explanation: You can use the Windows Performance tool on a client computer to
monitor system performance on the database server without negatively affecting the
performance of the database server. You can use the Windows Performance tool to
create a log on the client computer that you can analyze to determine the cause of a
resource bottleneck.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Profiler is used to trace events. It is not used to
troubleshoot resource bottlenecks.
B: You should run the Windows Performance tool from you client computer and save the
log file to your computer. This will reduce the impact of monitoring on the database
server.
Reference:
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: CPU [ ], monitoring
Microsoft 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning
Advisor [ ]

QUESTION 6:

You work as the database administrator at testkingworld .net. The testkingworld .net
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testkingworld .net. All
servers on the testkingworld .net network run Windows Server 2003 and all client

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